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"Hard Sync" Question
Old 17th October 2013
  #1
Gear Nut
 
Benny Hill's Avatar
 

"Hard Sync" Question

I was doing some research and found an SoS article about Hard Syncing Oscillators. They put this as rule 1 about hard syncing.

"When two oscillators are hard-synchronized, the pitch of the output is equal to the pitch of the master."

I assume they mean the slave.

But later in the article they mention:

"only the master is tracking the keyboard, so the frequency relationship between the master and slave is different for each note, resulting in different tones for each."

Does this mean that the notes being played stay the same, maybe octaves vary between slave and master as notes change? So only the tones shift? If not, taking "rule one" in to consideration, then why would it matter what note the master is playing regardless if only the master is being tracked and not the slave?
Old 17th October 2013
  #2
Lives for gear
 
enossified's Avatar
Quote:
Originally Posted by Benny Hill View Post
"When two oscillators are hard-synchronized, the pitch of the output is equal to the pitch of the master."

I assume they mean the slave.
No they meant the master. The idea is that the slave restarts whenever the master starts a new cycle, that means the slave's cycle is the same so the pitch is the same.

Quote:
"only the master is tracking the keyboard, so the frequency relationship between the master and slave is different for each note, resulting in different tones for each."
You've left something out here. On many synths it's not even possible to get the slave to not track the keys. But the statement is correct, if the slave pitch is not changing (or at least not tracking the keyboard 1:1) the result is each slave note's harmonic content will be different.
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