Originally Posted by evosilica
Not really. The more different something is in L and R (correlation = 0), the more it will be in equal amounts in M and S.
It has to be equal in L and R but inverted in one channel (180°) to be only in S (correlation = -1)
I mean correlation -1 as the most different, but I understand that I wasn't clear enough on what I defined as 'different'. I should have said opposite.
Basically we're saying the same.
Let me state it more complete and hopefully more clear now then:
The more sounds are equal in L and R (the more they go to correlation = 1), the louder they are in M compared to their appearance in S.
The more sounds are opposite in L and R (the more they go to correlation = -1), the louder they are in S compared to their appearance in M.
Only those sounds that are completely equal in L and R (correlation = 1) are in M only and not in S.
Only those sounds that are completely opposite in L and R (correleation = -1) are in S only and not in M.
All other sounds appear both in M and S. All sounds that are only in L or only in R (correlation = 0) appear in M and S at the same level.