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Old 21st November 2006   #1
Blast9
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Question Impedance question gtr pickups >>> gtr amps

Can someone clear this up please:

As I understand it, gtr amps have high impedance inputs around 1 meg ohm ---- Correct?

I assume that passive pickups are high impedance.

I also assume that pedals are also generally high impedance nowadays.

I assume therefore that signal degradation is minimised because the impedance is more or less the same throughout the chain.

What I can't understand is low impedance active pickups:

At which point is the impedance changed back to "high", so that the amp is being fed the correct signal?

I always understood that lo impedance circuits enabled the gtr signal to drive long chains of FX properly, but if pedals generally have hi impedance inputs, surely there's a mis-match?

I think I'm missing something
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